Thursday, October 6, 2011

Theology Follow-up

Good session tonight in my opinion!  I hope you received your invitation to join the Google group I created.  This enables you to receive notification on any updates to the blog.  As to the Filioque, from what I read, it appears that John 14:26 and John 15:26 are in view.  Am I correct?
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  1. Anonymous10 October, 2011 21:50

    Yeah, it has to do with the words "and the son" (filioque) in the Nicene creed (the yr 381 version). The Roman church wanted to put in the words, but the Greek church didn't want them.

    There's a (long) article about this on Wikipedia titled "filioque". The beginning part of the article and the summary at the end give you the main bits. It's still an issue today between Catholics and Orthodox churches that are attempting to reconcile with each other.

    -- Steve

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